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Why are most drugs not contraindicated correctly?

cotraindication

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#1 PeaceAndProsperity

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Posted 14 January 2017 - 06:48 PM


Take for example this drug https://en.wikipedia...Adverse_effects

The side-effects include psychosis and the drug increases dopamine 3-fold in various parts of the brain, as well as acting as an nmda antagonist, both of which are disease models for schizophrenia. So why is it it not contraindicated in patients with psychotic disorders?


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#2 jaiho

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Posted 14 January 2017 - 08:36 PM

Schizophrenia isn't as simple as high dopamine, there are multiple mechanisms at play.

Atomoxetine is an NRI, which can actually be beneficial for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.

 

The paradox with Schizo, is that the negative symptoms are linked to low dopamine transmission, and the positive symptoms can be linked to hyperactive dopamine.

Anti psychotics attempt to bring it back to balance,a drug like Abilify is a dopamine partial agonist, which increases low dopamine, but reduces high dopamine.

Other anti psychotics block dopamine receptors, while increasing it in other areas via 5HT2A antagonism.

 



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#3 PeaceAndProsperity

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Posted 14 January 2017 - 09:15 PM

I know about and agree on the complexity of psychotic disorders. Still, if a drug is known to cause psychosis, even if rarely, it should be contraindicated in psychotic disorders. It's common sense. Perhaps it's laziness or perhaps there's a really good but not obvious reason. 


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#4 jack black

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Posted 15 January 2017 - 12:13 AM

simple, wiki is not always accurate or comprehensive. see this: http://www.webmd.com...ntraindications


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#5 PeaceAndProsperity

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Posted 15 January 2017 - 12:54 AM

simple, wiki is not always accurate or comprehensive. see this: http://www.webmd.com...ntraindications

I've found several drugs on webmd.com that weren't contraindicated correctly.

You rated my thread 1 star but you didn't flag it. Why this sudden change of behavior?


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#6 PeaceAndProsperity

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Posted 23 January 2017 - 03:03 PM

Can someone please make me understand this. If inositol reduces function of the 5HT2A receptor, and the 5HT2A receptor's hyperfunction constitutes a disease model for psychotic disorders, why has inositol not been assumed to have an anti-psychotic effect when it has been assumed to have an anti-ocd effect based on the same effects it has on this receptor?

 

Am I missing some hidden piece in the puzzle?


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