Hello folks,
I read an interesting (profound, for me -- actually) document recently discussing why methylphenidate doesn't lead to substantially increased dopamine levels in the cerebral cortex -- notably, the lack of dopamine transporters in this region compared to other brain regions, so methylphenidate's primary mechanism of action of re-uptake inhibition of dopamine (and norepinephrine too I believe) isn't nearly as strong as amphetamine's direct release of these neurotransmitters (and its own apparent mild re-uptake inhibition as well), in this particular region of the brain. So dopamine ends up being elevated elsewhere, but not as much in the cerebral cortex, with methylphenidate. I'm not sure of the significance of this, but I would imagine that boosting dopamine in the cerebral cortex is a good thing assuming one forgets about long-term toxicity.
I do feel a difference in effect of methylphenidate vs. amphetamine. Methylphenidate can slow me down and let me fill out paper work line by line, using complete sentences and thoughts. But it doesn't necessarily motivate me or tackle my low-grade depression. Amphetamine slows me down but has slight mood elevating effects and tends to motivate me more, all the while never making me feel "speedy". There is some exacerbation of my natural anxious tendencies with both medications. This doesn't worry me as much as it might otherwise because I have made changes to my environment to reduce anxiety as much as possible, and the more can-do attitude I have towards certain life functions itself puts my mind at ease since I know I'm more on top of things and this knowledge tends to cancel out the anxiety-increasing effects of stimulant medication.
Back to the question at hand. I'm thinking about adding selegiline to my daily regimen. I am clueless as to what kind of dosage I should consider. The upper limit I would try chronically would probably be 10mg/day. The literature points to this effectively halting MAO-B. But a person of my age (20's) usually has less MAO-B, according to the research I've seen, which may account for the lower figures I see recommened. Life extensionists I see around here commonly recommend dosages around 1mg/day for people in my age bracket. But I yearn for more than life extension. I need life quality, now, at the point in time where investment in myself is most lucrative, i.e. potentially going back to school. I need motivation, drive, focus, and other qualities that dopamine can give me, but I'm not too keen on continuing stimulant medication especially that of amphetamine, seeing as that I have developed some tolerance (not too much though), and of course with full knowledge that amphetamines are neuro-toxic quite possibly at therapeutic doses.
I guess this is my true question. Is it likely that selegiline, via MAO-B inhibition, can boost my cerebral cortex dopamine (and norepinephrine) function as much as amphetamine can? And at such a level of therapeutic effect, is tolerance something I need to worry about? How would said tolerance develop, and would it completely negate the therapeutic effect I am seeking? Two mechanisms I can guess might come into play here. The construction of dopamine itself might be reduced, and the receptors may become less sensitive. Which of these two seem to occur, do they both occur, and is the cumulative down-regulation of the dopamine system enough to completely wipe out, over time, the therapeutic effect? Over how long a period of time do you suspect such down-regulation would take place?
I truly appreciate you reading this lengthy post. Your time is precious, and I sincerely appreciate your help if you decide to give it.
Sincerely,
-JohnMK
PS: I'm also curious about dosing-type. Liquid vs. tablet. Is there a substantial difference between them? I would personally probably do better with a tablet than a liquid dropper. Are the 5mg tablets scored so I can take 2.5mg daily, if I chose to dose at that level? Is bioavailability of tablet-form selegiline slightly or very much less than a drop of liquid selegiline? I think most studies used tablet selegiline, but I might be wrong. If that's the case then the suggested doses would need to be re-calculated to take into effect the added bioavailability of liquid over tablet, if any such exists.
PPS: Does anyone here have any theories as to what causes ADHD?
PPPS: Does anyone here agree that selegiline seems to be the ideal treatment for it in theory?