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avoid piracetam cycling?


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7 replies to this topic

#1 aC-

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Posted 09 December 2007 - 07:00 AM


my goal is using piracetam or its analog continuously without cycling off or building up tolerance.

since oxiracetam and aniracetam work differently, does that mean I can use piracetam for 4 weeks, and avoid cycling by simply switch to one of its analog (oxiracetam or aniracetam for example), and use it for another 4 weeks?

what I'm thinking is ...
4 weeks of pir --> 4 weeks of oxir --> 4 weeks of anir --> 4 weeks of pir

Edited by aC-, 10 December 2007 - 02:21 AM.


#2 power.bulls.x

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Posted 15 December 2007 - 02:51 AM

my goal is using piracetam or its analog continuously without cycling off or building up tolerance.

since oxiracetam and aniracetam work differently, does that mean I can use piracetam for 4 weeks, and avoid cycling by simply switch to one of its analog (oxiracetam or aniracetam for example), and use it for another 4 weeks?

what I'm thinking is ...
4 weeks of pir --> 4 weeks of oxir --> 4 weeks of anir --> 4 weeks of pir


theoretically not ridiculous . it might work.

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#3 luv2increase

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Posted 15 December 2007 - 02:58 AM

my goal is using piracetam or its analog continuously without cycling off or building up tolerance.

since oxiracetam and aniracetam work differently, does that mean I can use piracetam for 4 weeks, and avoid cycling by simply switch to one of its analog (oxiracetam or aniracetam for example), and use it for another 4 weeks?

what I'm thinking is ...
4 weeks of pir --> 4 weeks of oxir --> 4 weeks of anir --> 4 weeks of pir


It isn't that simple I'm afraid. Each analog works a little bit differently enough from each other through different mechanisms. I'm taking piracetam indefinitely. It never loses efficacy for me.

#4 edward

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Posted 15 December 2007 - 03:05 AM

I have never heard of a piracetam tolerance building up. From what I understand and from my experience (have been taking it for years almost every day) is that the longer you take it the more effective it is so why cycle?

#5 luv2increase

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Posted 15 December 2007 - 03:38 AM

Cycling is a stigma that needs to be overcome when necessary. Some supplements do need to be cycled, but the vast majority do not.

#6 Rags847

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Posted 15 December 2007 - 05:46 AM

Cycling is a stigma that needs to be overcome when necessary. Some supplements do need to be cycled, but the vast majority do not.


I've often wondered about this in regards to Piracetam and a choline source.
Do brain benefits just accrue - increased thinking and corpus colusom activity leading to increased neuronal connectivity (neuroplasticity)?
Or does the brain always balance itself out and down-regulate - create less synapse receptors and neurochemicals in response to the influx from the outside source (the pills)?
Any info and theories on this would be welcome.

By the way, I love Piracetam. Tried many things, but Piracetam surpassed my expectations!

Edited by Rags847, 16 December 2007 - 05:33 AM.


#7 MP11

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Posted 22 December 2007 - 08:50 AM

Cycling is a stigma that needs to be overcome when necessary. Some supplements do need to be cycled, but the vast majority do not.


I've often wondered about this in regards to Piracetam and a choline source.
Do brain benefits just accrue - increased thinking and corpus colusom activity leading to increased neuronal connectivity (neuroplasticity)?
Or does the brain always balance itself out and down-regulate - create less synapse receptors and neurochemicals in response to the influx from the outside source (the pills)?
Any info and theories on this would be welcome.


Good question. I'm interested as well.

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#8 Rags847

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Posted 22 December 2007 - 08:45 PM

Cycling is a stigma that needs to be overcome when necessary. Some supplements do need to be cycled, but the vast majority do not.


I've often wondered about this in regards to Piracetam and a choline source.
Do brain benefits just accrue - increased thinking and corpus colusom activity leading to increased neuronal connectivity (neuroplasticity)?
Or does the brain always balance itself out and down-regulate - create less synapse receptors and neurochemicals in response to the influx from the outside source (the pills)?
Any info and theories on this would be welcome.


Good question. I'm interested as well.


This question deserves its own thread:
http://www.imminst.o...showtopic=19528




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