A spelling flame? Stooping a bit low, but moving on.
In any case, would you mind trying to answer the question? Please give it a try. You don't even have to have data to back it up. I just want you to briefly describe an even remotely plausible biological mechanism which could account for the *exact* equality in distribution of genetic cognitive potential across (historically) geographically disparate groups of humans.
Why on earth do you keep thinking that every race has some kind of specific IQ associated with it? IQ is fluid. Genes are wild. There is no set IQ between races to even compare. And for some reason you want me to come up with an explanation for a correlation between these imaginary "racial IQs".
I think you meant "lumping all individuals of a given race together as if each one [i.e. race] has its own separate IQ..." Certainly I am not doing that. There is variability that needs to be accounted for at several levels - variability of individuals within the same family all the way up to the variability of between broad racial groups.
No, that is precisely what you are doing. You are arguing that there is a racial difference in IQ. You seem to think that IQ is something that can be bred for therefore it's either lacking or more pronounced in different races. That's called eugenics. It's pseudoscience.
How do you know? Upon what studies do you base this claim?
On the complete lack of any evidence that there is such a phenomenon. So far the only evidence you have offered up that there is such a phenomenon is to quote an article by a known racist and nutjob.
NATURAL HISTORY OF ASHKENAZI INTELLIGENCE
G COCHRAN, J HARDY, H HARPENDING - Journal of Biosocial Science, 2005 - Cambridge Univ Press
In this study, the hypothesis that the high intelligence test scores observed inAlbert Einstein is reputed to have said that 'Things should be described as simply as
possible, but no simpler.' The same principle must be invoked in explaining Einstein
himself.
the Ashkenazi Jewish population are a consequence of their occupation of a social
niche over the last millennium that selected strongly for IQ is evaluated. The evidence
of high intelligence test scores in this population, approximately one standard
deviation higher than the north-western European average, is summarized, and then
the relevant social history. We suggest that there was an increase in the frequency of
particular genes that elevated IQ as a by-product of this selective regime, which led
to an increased incidence of hereditary disorders.
They left off the fact that the Ashkenazi jews were very well off financially and as a result had much higher levels of education then most other people around them. This is born out by the fact that Israel is composed of about 50% Ashkenazi jews that immigrated from Europe yet the "heightened IQ" mentioned in this study isn't evident there. Which is more likely, genetics or a loss of finanicial wealth after WWII and subsequently not being able to afford top notch educations?
I'm pretty happy with what nature has bequeathed to me as an individual. I have no need or desire to assert the "superiority" on my own race.
And yet here you are trying and failing to establish some kind of genetic superiority based on race.
PZ Myers has an excellent post on his blog that covers this beautifully.
"Furthermore, intelligence is an incredibly plastic property of the brain. You can nurture it or you can squelch it — the marching morons will birth children with as much potential as a pair of science-fiction geeks, and all that will matter is how well that mind is encouraged to grow. Even a few centuries is not enough to breed stupidity into a natural population of humans — that brain power may lay fallow and undernourished, but there isn't enough time nor enough pressure to make substantial changes in the overall genetics of the brain."
Link