How would you explain the results of people who have taken Piracetam in 'hyperdosing' methods such as this Isochroma guy? I don't want to offend the him as he sounds like a nice guy, but he also sounds quite manic on his 20-30g it has to be said. His claims of slowly 'turning into God' do much to reinforce this point. To his credit he sounds like he's having a great time and he's had nothing but positive responses from it with over a year of consistent usage. You could argue he is an exeption to the rule or a 'one off' case but it still begs the question 'why'?.
Yes, Isochroma has said enough on here for us to label him manic. Honestly, I am pretty sure it's the piracetam that's making him come off that way-- I heard one other person mention it had the same effect on them, and I can personally attest to its mania-inducing effects.
"Hyperdosing" is a complete waste, not to mention in animal studies the dose-response curve clearly shows that too much piracetam will produce negative effects, and Isochroma's "super saturation point negative feedback" is just his wikipedia/piracetam-mania talking.
As far as his continued success with piracetam: I am jealous. I don't believe any of the shit about him having some "special gene/DNA" that let's him continue to use piracetam effectively-- that's more 90's pop science garbage. What I do believe is that the variables contributing to a person's success or failure with piracetam are very very complex.
My current belief is that the mechanism of action requires healthy adrenals, a balanced HPA-axis, enough good cholesterol and a positive sleep balance-- to put it as generally as possible.
So to be more concise: there is nothing "special" about Isochroma or other positive responders in my opinion (other than his fondness of making poetry about vitamin derivatives). "Tolerance" is a completely inaccurate term to describe the diminishment of piracetam's effects on a person. I believe there is a completely concrete physiological reason for the variability in the substance's effects.
Surely if he (or other people who consistently hyperdose) are having such great effects from Pira consistently, what does this suggest about their chemical makeup in terms of aldosterone/choline/serotonin?? Why are they uneffected by aldosterone depletion or any other reasons as to why they are always 'responders'??
It suggests that there is a difference in the levels of hormones, neurotransmitters, and other "X variables" circulating in their bodies. Again, the chemistry of a person's body is so individual and we still don't even know what it is exactly that's causing the differences in response, that everything at this point is speculation. Our best bet is to kidnap the responders and poke them with needles.
I'm not digressing here but I just want to ask about Aniracetam seeing as though it has been mentioned a couple of times in this thread.
I am keen to try aniracetam because of its effect on cognition,memory, mood and anxiety. I have read this noot works through its effect on dopamine, serotonin and the nicotonic receptors? On paper it sounds superior to Piracetam because it improves cognition and memory even further than Pira but also has a great effect on mood?? If Piracetam makes you depressed why wouldn't somebody just switch to aniracetam (obviously assuming they found the right balance with a choline source)?
I suppose this could ultimately come down to what people prefer. I'm assuming Pira is a brain drug for creativity whereas Ani makes one a bit more robotic?
Because the racetams have very similar chemical makeups, it is almost certain that the substances involved in their mechanism of action will be almost identical as well. What this means in practical terms is that if you have a negative response to piracetam, in general it's likely aniracetam won't work well for you either.
