You know the feeling, when you drink a few too many cups of coffee and everything around you seems to slow down. Manifest 10-fold on more potent stimulants like amphetamines. Likewise but reversely so under the influence of depressants - time seems to speed up.
I've wondered for a while about the underlying neural mechanisms behind subjective time experience and its possible link to relativistic time dilation.
For those that do not know, relativistic time dilation is basically this - As a body's velocity approaches the constant C (speed of light in a vacuum) it will slow down through time, proportional to the percentage of C it has reached; so as an object travels faster through the spatial planes, it slows down through the temporal plane.
Now, when you take a stimulant, the number of neurotransmitters in the brains synapses increase, increasing the speed at which a signal crosses the synapse, generally increasing the speed of thought. But why would this slow down subjective time perception? I think maybe it is because the signals travelling faster through your brain experience relativistic time dilation!
Alas, I cannot verify this with statistics, even if I knew the exact rates of synapse-crossing speeds on different drugs and measured that against their time distorting effects, time itself is experienced subjectively and so even if I tried to measure the difference in the flow of time it would be impossible!
Have you ever heard of this as a potential mechanism for time experience - the subjective speed of time flow is regulated by the speed at which neuronal signals are sent and received?
It sounds like a possible hypothesis, especially considering the speed at which thought processes are mediated which is very fast because they are electro-chemical (for RTD to occur non-negligibly (in relation to Newton's equations) the speeds must surpass about 20% the speed of light).
What I lack is knowing anything about the relative speeds of neural transmissions and how they are affected by an abundance/lack of neurotransmitters. If the differences are very small then this theory is KAPUT.
So I am looking for any input about the relative rates of change in neurotransmission under the influence of both stimulants and depressants.
Maybe this is in the wrong place, its kindof Physics but also Biology so I put it here.
Hope somebody has some ideas on this, thanks