Posted 12 May 2005 - 05:13 AM
A bit of excessively deep rambling-
You know, for every event there is only one direct, physical cause.
Although, people tend to get confused about this because there are always conditions which exist that allow the event to occur given its physical cause.
For example, why did billy die? Well, technically, billy died when his brain was irrecoverably halted of its function. billy didn't die because he got hit by a truck.
When you face questions with such specificity of actual physical cause you realize that absolute truth is something that is, as it is labeled, absolute. It doesn't matter who is observing it.
Also, why do we search for absolute truth? Obviously, we are doing it because when we are confident of the absolute truth we feel a sense of satsifaction. Some more than others.
However, there can also be "absolute subjectivity". It's the ultimate end of a subjective intelligence, as its subjectivity is ONLY limited to its desires, not by its knowledge or ability. It's desires are those events that bring about a sense of satisfaction in a world of unlimited possibility (other than physical law) and knowledge of cause and effect.
I would say that morality would be defined technically as desires of absolutely subjective entities that converge. That is to say, the desire of one absolutely subjective entity doesn't definitively prevent the desire of another absolutely subjective entity.
But then again, if two entities absolutely subjectivity are divergent, then it isn't really an "immoral situation"- its actually an impossible moral situation. So then what is 'morality'? What is, ultimately good or bad? Well if we were absolutely subjective entities we would know because we would know everything. In fact, to do anything "immoral" wouldn't be someone being evil or bad at all. It would be an insane entity, an irrational one.
Or, it would be the actions of an entity that are fundamentally good for one entity, but fundamentally bad for another. However, who deserves the good or bad? If one's satisfaction must suffer in leiu of the other's by inherent definition, then what to do? We have no measure.
Although, one entity may allow a diminished satisfaction in order for the unity of desires in general. I'm assuming this is taken into account.
Ay.. for example, the jews and muslims (well some of them) both want jerusalem, without the others there. (ok, I admit my ignorance, this could very well be complete BS, but stick with me here). What is the correct solution? What should be done?
Well if they all become absolutely subjective entities, then probably all their differences will be worked out. probably.
if not, say each of them have fundamental desires that simply cannot be satisfied until the others are out of jerusalem and they are there.
I don't even know what to say about that. But i'm tired so i'm going to bed.
Is this far too abstract for you to even comprehend? Talk to me.
-anyway that is another way of wording my justification for donating to sing inst, because i would argue that singinst is the fastest way for us to become 'absolutely subjective', and thus actually moral.