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Methylene Blue Experiences


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#331 medievil

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Posted 18 November 2011 - 10:49 PM

Anyone that has tried methylene blue with benzo's? The sedation may be modulated, togheter with withdrawals and tolerance possibly of other substances too, any reports coming in are highly apreciated, especially with substances like amphetamine or other stimulants, also a simple observation like how it affects coming off amp are apreciated.


Dose of MB to combine with benzo?

It probably wont work if it doesnt affect NO, but nitric oxide modulaters can become the next nmda antagonists for potentiating several substances and help allevating the withdrawal and tolerance issues.

Im preparing a thread about this soon, i beleive no is a much better pathway anyway as you dont antagonize NMDA wich is better agonized.

As an example, nmda agonists will help social anxiety related fears in a way thats differend from drugs that induce monoamine build up, look up d cycloserine and social anxiety. D cyclosering is a weak nmda agonist, glycine or its reuptake inhibitor sarcosine will work better.

As an example one finding amphetamine effective can still get the same effectiveness (even better) then when they have to take a nmda antagonist for tolerance, ill fully explain this later on when ive got a thread ready, for now nmda antagonists will still do for most people.

A alternative pathway also helps those unresponsive to nmda antagonists.

Methylene blue may fit into this modulation as it depletes glutamate, i'm not sure how it does that tough, as far as i'm aware nmda antagonism should induce more NO, but then again methylene blue has a very complex mechanism of action.

One paper hypothised it also acts on glutamate receptors besides lowering glutamate, and that way cause a overall agonistic action, looking for more information about this possibility and how it exactly modulates glutamate.

Edited by medievil, 18 November 2011 - 10:55 PM.

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#332 medievil

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Posted 18 November 2011 - 10:54 PM

As far as my own experience with methylene blue, i stil have to experiment properly, i did it while also impulsively switching around substances or introducing new things, it definatly seemed to be of major benefit, but as i'm giving nefiracetam a proper trial now, i should wait to retry it.

One thing i allways noticed was a "strong" feeling of wellbeing, especially the strong part is interesting and hopefully only the one's having no experience with the drug would wonder what a strong feeling is, while the rest knows what i'm talking about.

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#333 amark

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Posted 21 November 2011 - 09:57 PM

I am taking approx 100mg per day of mb. My interest was in alleviating the symptoms of Bi polar disorder type 2. I was already taking the drug Lyrica which had and still does promotes positive effects although there was still room for further improvement. I ordered mb via a science busness in an effort to try to get a resonalbe amount of purtity and also because none of the oet stores carried it. I have concluded that it is a valuable addtion for me. I am less prone to have mood swings, am calmer and hopefully I will not suffer episodes of depression but of course that is a wait and see.

I think that if anyone else is bipolar that this might be worth considering. I got the mb from "cell sci" online.

Both drugs affect the calcium channels int he brain. They do this incompletely and are not to be confused with drugs that do just that usually blood pressure medicines. Those to have been tried in the treatment of bipolar disorder.

I am still awaitng the blood tests results which are likely be fine since usually they get on top of things if they get results that warrant it. I keep hoping for a urine test. The they will really know why I am blue.

More when I have something.

Edited by amark, 21 November 2011 - 10:04 PM.


#334 Adamzski

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Posted 22 November 2011 - 07:30 AM

Last night I took a supplement horsepower, I dropped 2mg of MB in it and went to sleep about 2hrs later, wow I had the most intense dreams, all good vibe or fantasy dreams kind of like porn, the sup contains Arginine and Beta-Alanine among other things


Betaine Hydrochloride 2 g
Taurine (micronized) 2 g
N-Acetyl-L-Glutamine 1.1 g
Creatine Blend: Kre-Alkalyn® 1.5g Creatine Ethyl Ester 1.1g Tri-Creatine Malate 1.5g
NO Power Blend 4000mg: Arginine Alpha Ketoglutarate, Arginine Ethyl Ester Dihydrochloride.
HorsePower Blend 5800mg: Beta-Alanine, Glycerol Monostearate, Medium Chain Triglycerides, Citrulline Ethyl Ester Malate, L-Norvaline, Guanidinopropionic Acid, Gynostemma Pentaphyllum, Ornithine Alpha Ketoglutarate, Arginine Ketoisocaproate, R-Alpha Lipoic Acid,


A strange effect is that the Beta-Alanine usualy makes me tingle all over like pins and needles when I take this sup alone but when taken with MB there is no tingling at all

#335 lourdaud

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Posted 22 November 2011 - 12:37 PM

In support of the assumption that it does work at this dose, I will say that I'm not experiencing the cognitive enhancement effects described in the review (at least that I've noticed), and MB has a wacky hormetic dose-response curve. Devin posted a paper earlier in this thread which showed significant increase in Complex IV activity at 10nM, which seems like it could be achievable with the ~100mcg doses we're discussing. Note that it wasn't a lower limit, and had a flat dose-response from 10nM to 100nM:

Enhancement of oxidative metabolism in mitochondria is the mechanism the review posits for the cognitive effects, so it seems not unreasonable that similar effects could occur at lower doses, given this data.


So, basically, when you take MB in doses higher than 100 - 250 mcg, all it will further do is to act on mood and motivation, due to its MAOI-activity?
If that's the case I don't see why you'd want to take it in those ultra-high doses, considering the rather unknown safety profile of MB and the fact that there are plenty of other MAOI's out there to choose from instead. Or what do you think..? :|?

EDIT: Oh, and by "you", I didn't meant you, Chrono!

Edited by klantskalle, 22 November 2011 - 12:40 PM.


#336 amark

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 02:18 AM

I got the blood test back and it is not worth scanning. All results were in normal range. I am find the combination of Lyrica MB seems to make me calmer and moderate my mood swings. So far so good.

#337 amark

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 04:13 PM

Klantskalle,

There is a saying here that to make a comparison you have to compare like things. " It's like comparing apples to oranges." Just because something is an maoi inhibitor does not mean that any other aspect of the substance is the same. I would be more inclined to compare substances that affect the calcium channel properties in our brains.

In tests with people with BP depression 195mg was given and similar amounts have been used in the treatment of malaria. I have taken 195mg but found it was a little too much. I felt uncomfortable. At 100 mg the stuff worked, My blood tests as mentioned have all come back as normal. I feel very good. I have tried lesser amounts of mb but 100 mg seems to be good for me.

I have to assume that those people who have tried it at micro does either are more sensitive because of their "normal" brain structure or else it is the placebo affect.

Be well

Edited by amark, 25 November 2011 - 04:15 PM.

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#338 lourdaud

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 06:32 PM

Amark:

I see now that it appears as if I'm trying to make a statement in my earlier post. Sry, this was not my intention, it was more meant like a question.

I didn't know of MB altering calcium channel activity. To be honest I don't really know what that is, but I guess it's got something to do with the glutamate system.. if so, does this mean that MB reduces NMDA?

Hm, how would you compare higher to lower doses? For me ~1 mg makes me feel good but unfortunately I get all lazy and unmotivated, eventhough I'm on dexamphetamine. Smaller doses don't seem to carry this problem. Curious on how I'd react to higher doses..

#339 amark

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 06:44 PM

This should keep you busy. I have insufficent knowledge of bio chem to answer your question. I cannot help you with questions on dosage. The least I have taken is 100mg.



Endotoxin induces an enzyme that synthesizes nitric oxide (NO) from L-arginine (NO synthase) in vascular smooth muscle cells, macrophages, and fibroblasts, leading to the release of NO. We evaluated the release of NO and its intracellular action on the Ca2+-activated K+ channel (Kca channel) in cultured human dermal papilla cells by use of the electron paramagnetie response (EPR) spin trapping method and the patch clamp technique. In dermal papilla cells pretreated for 24 h with endotoxin (1 Posted Imageg/ml), application of 1 mM L-arginine generated NO, although no measurable release of NO was observed in cells without endotoxin pretreatment, as determined by the EPR spin trapping method. With the patch clamp technique, we found that the Kca channel of dermal papilla cells had high conductance and was voltage dependent. In addition, after endotoxin pretreatment, the extracellular application of 100 Posted ImageM L-arginine modulated the Kca channel in the cellattached patch confignrations. In inside-out patch configuration, however, NO produced by L-arginine itself did not modulate the Kca channel. This modulation of the Kca channel was suppressed by pretreatment with 100 Posted Imagem NPosted Image-nitro-L-arginine methyl ester, an inhibitor of inducible and constitutive NO synthases. Methylene blue, a blocker of guanylate cyclase, inhibited the L-arginine-induced activation of the Kca channel. These results indicate that the endotoxin-induced L-arginine pathway generates NO, which consequently modulates the Kcachannel in cultured human dermal papilla cells by increasing of cyclic GMP-dependent phosphorylation.



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#340 niner

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 07:59 PM

Endotoxin induces an enzyme that synthesizes nitric oxide (NO) from L-arginine (NO synthase) in vascular smooth muscle cells, macrophages, and fibroblasts, leading to the release of NO. We evaluated the release of NO and its intracellular action on the Ca2+-activated K+ channel (Kca channel) in cultured human dermal papilla cells by use of the electron paramagnetie response (EPR) spin trapping method and the patch clamp technique. In dermal papilla cells pretreated for 24 h with endotoxin (1 Posted Imageg/ml), application of 1 mM L-arginine generated NO, although no measurable release of NO was observed in cells without endotoxin pretreatment, as determined by the EPR spin trapping method. With the patch clamp technique, we found that the Kca channel of dermal papilla cells had high conductance and was voltage dependent. In addition, after endotoxin pretreatment, the extracellular application of 100 Posted ImageM L-arginine modulated the Kca channel in the cellattached patch confignrations. In inside-out patch configuration, however, NO produced by L-arginine itself did not modulate the Kca channel. This modulation of the Kca channel was suppressed by pretreatment with 100 Posted Imagem NPosted Image-nitro-L-arginine methyl ester, an inhibitor of inducible and constitutive NO synthases. Methylene blue, a blocker of guanylate cyclase, inhibited the L-arginine-induced activation of the Kca channel. These results indicate that the endotoxin-induced L-arginine pathway generates NO, which consequently modulates the Kcachannel in cultured human dermal papilla cells by increasing of cyclic GMP-dependent phosphorylation.


I checked the full paper, and they used 10 micromolar MB for this. That's about a thousand times the level (if not more) we're likely seeing at sub-milligram doses, so this effect is unlikely to be active.

#341 amark

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 08:09 PM

Well I am the exception ingesting 100mg per day which is and feel the mental effects. It has been enough time to eliminate the likelihood of it being the placebo effect. Of course I cannot definitively say exactly what is having the effect or how much mb might be influencing my mental state. Interestingly when I asked my Dr. how one of the many drugs I tried in the past the main answer was they don't know. The effect might be due to a different biochemical mechanism.

#342 amark

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 08:30 PM

Here is a reference to the study that got me interested.


Methylene Blue Successfully Augments Lamotrigine in the Treatment of Bipolar Disorder

SEPTEMBER 16, 2011 · POSTED IN POTENTIAL TREATMENTS

Posted ImageIn a double-blind, placebo-controlled trial for patients with bipolar disorder, Martin Alda and colleagues from Dalhousie University in Halifax, Nova Scotia found that the compound methylene blue was an effective augmentation for mood stablizers. Methylene blue inhibits nitric oxide synthetase and guanylate cyclase, the overproduction of which might be associated with neuronal damage. Since bipolar disorder has consistently been associated with neuronal and glial cell dysfunction and loss, methylene blue could be a promising treatment.

Methylene blue turns urine blue, so in place of a placebo the researchers used very low doses (15 mg daily) of methylene blue compared with the active dose of 195 mgs daily.

Thirty-seven patients were enrolled in the randomized 26-week trial, and all patients were treated with lamotrigine as their primary mood stabilizer and with any additional medications they were already taking. Patients entered in a well or euthymic state (n =20), mildly depressed (n=14), or while minimally cycling (n = 3).

Scores on both the Montgomery-Asberg Depression Rating Scale and the Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression improved significantly, with an effect size of 0.47 and 0.42, respectively. Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale scores also improved significantly with an effect size of 0.46.

Methylene blue was well tolerated, with only transient and mild side effects observed. However, the FDA has issued a warning that using methylene blue with serotonin active agents can lead to a severe serotonin syndrome (because methylene blue is a potent inhibitor of MAO-A and will increase brain serotonin levels when used in conjunction with serotonin active antidepressants). Symptoms of serotonin syndrome can include confusion, hyperactivity, sweating, fever, shivering, diarrhea, trouble with coordination, and even seizures.

The researchers at Dalhousie University concluded that methylene blue used as an adjunctive medication to lamotrigine and other previously inadequately effective agents (only those which are NOT serotonin active) significantly improved depression and anxiety in patients with bipolar disorder. They proposed further exploration of the mechanisms involved in this change, with the possibility that other drugs with similar actions could also be effective in this disorder.

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#343 niner

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Posted 25 November 2011 - 08:47 PM

Well I am the exception ingesting 100mg per day which is and feel the mental effects. It has been enough time to eliminate the likelihood of it being the placebo effect. Of course I cannot definitively say exactly what is having the effect or how much mb might be influencing my mental state.


You are one of the few people here who is taking enough MB to make NOS inhibition, guanylate cyclase inhibition, MAO inhibition, or a risk of serotonin syndrome really plausible. I note that in the report you just posted, the effective dose for bipolar patients was 195 mg. A dose of 15 mg was considered a placebo in that trial.

#344 chrono

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Posted 30 November 2011 - 11:34 AM

So, basically, when you take MB in doses higher than 100 - 250 mcg, all it will further do is to act on mood and motivation, due to its MAOI-activity?


That's one possible implication of the data I posted, along with the review's speculation about the reasons for cognitive enhancement, yes. But higher dosages do present several other mechanisms as well, so it's difficult to say. Several of the human cognition studies found no activity at dosages much higher than what we're discussing here, but it's hard to say how much of that might be due to the MAOI-A effect.

All I was really trying to show was that there are mechanisms in play at very low concentrations. However, it's still questionable what concentrations may be reached by sub-milligram dosages. This paper reports a 10x lower plasma concentration with oral administration compared to IV, probably due to absorption into intestinal walls and liver. I have to wonder where sublingual or supralingual administration falls on this spectrum; I found a drastically lower effect when I took the dose in a capsule instead of dropping it on my tongue, so I suspect it's closer to the IV. I think several people here have taken it in a glass of water, so this is a variable we may not have considered yet.

I'd guess that the whole blood concentration reached by a (lingual) 100mcg dose is somewhere between 0.1 and 1nM. However, the same study found something like a 15-fold greater concentration in the brain than whole blood (in rats). So, I think it's plausible that we're in the ballpark of a dose which could affect the mitochondria, given the data in my last post. But pretty much all of the studies are performed on vastly higher dosages, so skepticism is definitely warranted here.

For myself, I'm no longer feeling the very pronounced alterations in mood and perception I described in the first week. Perhaps this is due to tolerance, some kind of steady state from dosing 2-3x a day so I don't notice the change as much, or change in another confounding variable (e.g. drug interactions). Or maybe it was something that can only be achieved when completely naive, like the effects one gets when first taking piracetam. I'm still prepared to say that what I experienced was well beyond placebo effects. I gave a dropper bottle to a friend of mine, who mistakenly took something like 300mcg his first dose, and experienced pronounced fatigue for about 5 hours.
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#345 MrHappy

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Posted 30 November 2011 - 12:48 PM

The feelings of well-being certainly faded for me after about 1 week at 3x 1mg/day.

Next test could possibly be observing how you feel if you discontinue cold turkey - that should also help eliminate any perception of a placebo effect and confirm tolerance?

I think MB may have increased value, if cycled?

#346 niner

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Posted 30 November 2011 - 01:08 PM

Chrono, I think most people here are taking MB orally in a glass of water. You're the first that I've heard talk about lingual/sublingual dosing. I'm not sure the top of the tongue has the same characteristics as the sublingual tissues; the only things that are given supraligually that I know of would be things that you want to dose the throat with, like cough drops. At any rate, the points you raise about concentration effects, like getting 10X more in brain tissue than in blood are important. Critical, in fact, if we want to attribute the effects we see, or think we see, to enzymes with IC50s that are orders of magnitude higher than what we would get instantaneously from an i.v. In that case, at least briefly, the concentration in blood would be moles of MB/blood volume, though partitioning would begin immediately. The problem with the concentration in brain idea is that you don't get 10X the instantaneous i.v. level, but rather the blood level drops as the MB partitions into the brain and all the other compartments that it encounters. The extent to which it partitions is mostly determined by the partition coefficient, log P. That's the ratio of the compound in n-octanol vs water, found at equilibrium when the two solvents are in contact. MB has a log P near zero. That means it's going to partition roughly equally between lipid and water compartments. However, it easily converts to leucomethylene blue, which is uncharged and has a log P of 4. It will be therefore be found predominantly in the lipid compartment, of which the brain is (-ish) one of many. Of course, LMB also easily goes back to MB, so in the end there's an equilibrium. The net effect of all this is that MB, in its various forms, tends to go more or less everywhere. That makes it really hard to figure out exactly what the concentration is going to be at the site of action, but implies that it isn't going to be particularly high in any one place, because there are so many places in the body where it's happy to hang out.
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#347 niner

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Posted 30 November 2011 - 01:11 PM

Next test could possibly be observing how you feel if you discontinue cold turkey - that should also help eliminate any perception of a placebo effect and confirm tolerance?


No, not at all. The placebo effect works both ways- you feel good when you're on the placebo, and bad when you're off it. The only way to figure it out is to make it so you don't know if you're getting the real thing or not.

#348 chrono

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Posted 30 November 2011 - 03:26 PM

Chrono, I think most people here are taking MB orally in a glass of water. You're the first that I've heard talk about lingual/sublingual dosing. I'm not sure the top of the tongue has the same characteristics as the sublingual tissues; the only things that are given supraligually that I know of would be things that you want to dose the throat with, like cough drops.


No, I'm not sure about that either. The only paper I could find on supralingual drug delivery was this one, which found it to be comparable to sublingual administration in that model. Certainly not conclusive, but it's an idea. I thought there were a few other people who were just dropping it in their mouths as well, but I could be mistaken.


At any rate, the points you raise about concentration effects, like getting 10X more in brain tissue than in blood are important. Critical, in fact, if we want to attribute the effects we see, or think we see, to enzymes with IC50s that are orders of magnitude higher than what we would get instantaneously from an i.v.


I wasn't implying that the effects I'm trying to explain are due to MAOA inhibition. Since I'm on tramadol, I wouldn't be taking MB at all if I thought there was even a possibility of that happening. What I was referring to here was the mitochondrial enhancement effect I mentioned earlier, which shows activity at concentrations which are much closer to our dosage range. By looking at the pharmacokinetics, I was only trying to guess how close a 100mcg dose might bring us to the lowest data point of 10nM.


The problem with the concentration in brain idea is that you don't get 10X the instantaneous i.v. level, but rather the blood level drops as the MB partitions into the brain and all the other compartments that it encounters....That makes it really hard to figure out exactly what the concentration is going to be at the site of action, but implies that it isn't going to be particularly high in any one place, because there are so many places in the body where it's happy to hang out.


To be honest, being ill-read and half-educated, I'm not really comfortable applying the math you're talking about here :-D I was referring to the specific results in the reference I spoke of; the full paper was uploaded by someone here...might even have been you, I don't recall the original post. The data I mentioned for both human blood concentration and the whole blood vs. brain concentration in rats were both derived at 1h+, not the instantaneous IV. And since fig. 3 has a logarithmic scale it's probably closer to 30x brain concentration for IV, and 10x for regular oral. While this is rat data, I feel like this kind of real-world result should trump a theoretical consideration of the solubility profile, though I certainly wouldn't be surprised if I'm wrong about this.

With regular oral dosing, brain concentration might be somewhere around .6nM or so, assuming a 10x differential at 1h. This is a lot of guesswork, but I don't have much data to work with right now, and it's just some ballpark figuring.

As I said, the effects I experienced in the first 10 days or so were well beyond what I've felt from any number of other nootropics which now inhabit a box in my closet (including an experiment using ultra-low-dose naltrexone for pain management, from a similar dropper bottle), and I was expecting absolutely nothing subjective at the beginning of my trial. People who felt comfortable getting closer to 1mg described even stronger effects, so I'm just trying to see what mechanisms we might use to explain this phenomenon aside from a mass placebo effect. ;)

I'll probably stop using MB for a while, to see if the effects come back after a break.

Edited by chrono, 30 November 2011 - 03:34 PM.


#349 niner

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Posted 01 December 2011 - 06:14 AM

...I was only trying to guess how close a 100mcg dose might bring us to the lowest data point of 10nM.

The problem with the concentration in brain idea is that you don't get 10X the instantaneous i.v. level, but rather the blood level drops as the MB partitions into the brain and all the other compartments that it encounters....That makes it really hard to figure out exactly what the concentration is going to be at the site of action, but implies that it isn't going to be particularly high in any one place, because there are so many places in the body where it's happy to hang out.


To be honest, being ill-read and half-educated, I'm not really comfortable applying the math you're talking about here :-D I was referring to the specific results in the reference I spoke of; the full paper was uploaded by someone here...might even have been you, I don't recall the original post. The data I mentioned for both human blood concentration and the whole blood vs. brain concentration in rats were both derived at 1h+, not the instantaneous IV. And since fig. 3 has a logarithmic scale it's probably closer to 30x brain concentration for IV, and 10x for regular oral. While this is rat data, I feel like this kind of real-world result should trump a theoretical consideration of the solubility profile, though I certainly wouldn't be surprised if I'm wrong about this.

With regular oral dosing, brain concentration might be somewhere around .6nM or so, assuming a 10x differential at 1h. This is a lot of guesswork, but I don't have much data to work with right now, and it's just some ballpark figuring.


Thanks for that paper. I'd seen it before, but I'm giving it a harder look now.

I wasn't really trying to calculate the level from first principles or anything like that; that would be almost impossible. I was really thinking about the back-of-the-envelope calculation where you compute the highest possible (i.v.) blood level by dividing the moles of drug by a typical 5 liter blood volume. If you do that for 100mg MB, you get a maximum possible blood level of 62.5uM. From figure 1, at one hour after a 100mg iv dose, they get ~0.14-0.15uM, so the level has fallen by a factor of ~420 from the theoretical max. (Their first time point is probably around 5 minutes) If we used a 100ug iv dose, and applied the same kinetics, that would be a 1-hour blood level of 0.145nM. Since we're using that dose orally, according to the rat data, we should see in the brain about the same as this 1-hr iv blood level, or 0.145nM in brain. I'm actually doing this exercise on the back of a real envelope as we speak. This is a so-so result, in that it's telling us that a 1mg oral dose should get us to 1.4nM in the brain, which probably isn't enough to see the mitochondrial effect. This would place the optimal dose for mitochondrial effects at around 70mg. It would also say that a potentially troublesome MAOI effect would start to kick in at about double that. I don't think this explains the effects from 100ug doses, but it says we could conceivably see something at, say 5-10mg? I hope I didn't make a logical or arithmetic error on this; it's kinda late...

As I said, the effects I experienced in the first 10 days or so were well beyond what I've felt from any number of other nootropics which now inhabit a box in my closet (including an experiment using ultra-low-dose naltrexone for pain management, from a similar dropper bottle), and I was expecting absolutely nothing subjective at the beginning of my trial. People who felt comfortable getting closer to 1mg described even stronger effects, so I'm just trying to see what mechanisms we might use to explain this phenomenon aside from a mass placebo effect. ;)

I'll probably stop using MB for a while, to see if the effects come back after a break.

I wish I was seeing something more nootropic. Maybe I am, and I'm just too dense to realize it... I was expecting something major when I first tried it, and did have some 'tightness' in my head that was either placebo or has subsided. I'm taking 800-1000ug. I really think that the striking appearance of MB when you put it in water makes it especially placebo-genic. Still, you and some of the other people here are pretty experienced psychonauts, so I can't rule out that something real is going on.

Edited by niner, 01 December 2011 - 06:15 AM.


#350 smithx

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Posted 02 December 2011 - 11:50 AM

I just got some methylene blue chloride, CAS 7220-78-3, which I believe to be the same as the methylene blue anhydrous CAS 61-73-4, but with 3(H20) on each molecule.

It states on the bottle that it is "Basic Blue 9 ; Swiss Blue" is certified by the Biological Stain Commission (although I can't find the cert # on their site), and that the dye content is 83%. I assume the rest is water.

Does this sound like the right stuff? I ordered it because I thought it would be more pure, being certified.

#351 niner

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Posted 02 December 2011 - 01:50 PM

I just got some methylene blue chloride, CAS 7220-78-3, which I believe to be the same as the methylene blue anhydrous CAS 61-73-4, but with 3(H20) on each molecule.

It states on the bottle that it is "Basic Blue 9 ; Swiss Blue" is certified by the Biological Stain Commission (although I can't find the cert # on their site), and that the dye content is 83%. I assume the rest is water.

Does this sound like the right stuff? I ordered it because I thought it would be more pure, being certified.


It's methylene blue alright. The trouble is, I don't know what it means to be certified by the BSC. Does it mean it's safe to ingest, or does it mean it's the right color? If it was USP (P=Pharmacopeia) grade, then I'd say it was ok. This stuff might be ok... maybe someone knows. If you include the chloride ion in the calculation, then it's theoretically 78% MB by weight. If you just take the 3 waters into account, it's 85.5% If that's how they're defining it, then there's a couple percent of other stuff in there, which could just be extra water, or who knows what...

#352 smithx

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Posted 03 December 2011 - 01:03 AM

Hmm... that seems worrisome, if there's 2.5% unknown stuff in there potentially.

Which do you think is the most pure and reliable reasonably priced MB? BTW, I don't have trouble ordering industrial chemicals usually because I have a corporation and a commercial address.

#353 amark

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Posted 03 December 2011 - 01:17 AM

I really do not know. I am using cas 61 73 4. I too would prefer the highest purity.
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#354 MrHappy

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Posted 03 December 2011 - 10:27 AM

:) Bearing in mind that according to some of the research, the active part of MB is actually a 'normal' impurity of MB production called 'azure B'.





#355 niner

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Posted 03 December 2011 - 02:22 PM

:) Bearing in mind that according to some of the research, the active part of MB is actually a 'normal' impurity of MB production called 'azure B'.


I suppose that's possible, although if the effect is due to the ease of redox reactions with these compounds, azure B and MB are probably about identical.

More importantly, if we want to ascribe the effects of extremely low doses to an impurity, then that's another couple orders of magnitude of potency we have to explain. If the effects are due to a 2% impurity in a 60mcg dose, then you're only getting a little over a microgram. You wouldn't even feel that amount of LSD or fentanyl, to name a couple high potency drugs of note.

#356 MrHappy

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Posted 03 December 2011 - 09:08 PM

If anyone wants to compare azure b, I found a cheap source here:
http://www.proscitec...ine.asp?page=c2

#357 MrHappy

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Posted 03 December 2011 - 09:12 PM

This was the azure B research:
http://www.mpasmb-ha...thyleneBlue.pdf
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#358 DeadMeat

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Posted 03 December 2011 - 11:53 PM

Thanks for that paper. I'd seen it before, but I'm giving it a harder look now.

I wasn't really trying to calculate the level from first principles or anything like that; that would be almost impossible. I was really thinking about the back-of-the-envelope calculation where you compute the highest possible (i.v.) blood level by dividing the moles of drug by a typical 5 liter blood volume. If you do that for 100mg MB, you get a maximum possible blood level of 62.5uM. From figure 1, at one hour after a 100mg iv dose, they get ~0.14-0.15uM, so the level has fallen by a factor of ~420 from the theoretical max. (Their first time point is probably around 5 minutes) If we used a 100ug iv dose, and applied the same kinetics, that would be a 1-hour blood level of 0.145nM. Since we're using that dose orally, according to the rat data, we should see in the brain about the same as this 1-hr iv blood level, or 0.145nM in brain. I'm actually doing this exercise on the back of a real envelope as we speak. This is a so-so result, in that it's telling us that a 1mg oral dose should get us to 1.4nM in the brain, which probably isn't enough to see the mitochondrial effect. This would place the optimal dose for mitochondrial effects at around 70mg. It would also say that a potentially troublesome MAOI effect would start to kick in at about double that. I don't think this explains the effects from 100ug doses, but it says we could conceivably see something at, say 5-10mg? I hope I didn't make a logical or arithmetic error on this; it's kinda late...


Since I don’t like the results of that bioavailability study, lets take another one. :) And its probably outdated anyway.
http://www.springerl...27/fulltext.pdf

Very little information on systemic MB concentrations in humans was available at the onset of this investigation, and what was available suggested a very low bioavailability. Our own data on the interaction of MB and CQ from a previous study [26] did not allow us to estimate bioavailability. In a study comparing 100 mg MB orally and i.v., the AUC0–4h of whole blood MB concentrations was only about 1% of the corresponding value after i.v. injection [24]. Therefore, in the investigation reported here, the oral dose was relatively high, whereas the i.v. dose was less than that in the earlier bioavailability study [24] and less than used for some diagnostic procedures [15]. However, in contrast to our expectation, bioavailability turned out to be high: about two thirds of the oral dose of MB taken as an aqueous solution reached the systemic circulation. One important explanation for this finding is probably the fact that the sensitivity of analytical procedures has improved remarkably in the time between our study and previous ones [3]; this has enabled us to detect total MB concentrations in plasma and whole blood much better than previously, with a difference in the order of 100:1. In our interaction study with CQ [26], we probably quantified only the unbound fraction, and it is possible that other published reports also relate to free rather than to total MB plasma and whole blood concentrations.


From fig. 3 Maximal plasma concentration: 3300 ng/ml for 500 mg MB orally. So about 10000 nM for 500 mg and 2 nM for 100 µg if we ignore everything that probably can't be ignored when going to much smaller dosages. And if we then happily apply the multiply by 10 result from the other study. That would sort of give a brain concentration of 20 nM for 100 µg orally.

#359 niner

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Posted 04 December 2011 - 06:52 AM

Thanks for that paper. I'd seen it before, but I'm giving it a harder look now.

I wasn't really trying to calculate the level from first principles or anything like that; that would be almost impossible. I was really thinking about the back-of-the-envelope calculation where you compute the highest possible (i.v.) blood level by dividing the moles of drug by a typical 5 liter blood volume. If you do that for 100mg MB, you get a maximum possible blood level of 62.5uM. From figure 1, at one hour after a 100mg iv dose, they get ~0.14-0.15uM, so the level has fallen by a factor of ~420 from the theoretical max. (Their first time point is probably around 5 minutes) If we used a 100ug iv dose, and applied the same kinetics, that would be a 1-hour blood level of 0.145nM. Since we're using that dose orally, according to the rat data, we should see in the brain about the same as this 1-hr iv blood level, or 0.145nM in brain. I'm actually doing this exercise on the back of a real envelope as we speak. This is a so-so result, in that it's telling us that a 1mg oral dose should get us to 1.4nM in the brain, which probably isn't enough to see the mitochondrial effect. This would place the optimal dose for mitochondrial effects at around 70mg. It would also say that a potentially troublesome MAOI effect would start to kick in at about double that. I don't think this explains the effects from 100ug doses, but it says we could conceivably see something at, say 5-10mg? I hope I didn't make a logical or arithmetic error on this; it's kinda late...


Since I don’t like the results of that bioavailability study, lets take another one. :) And its probably outdated anyway.
http://www.springerl...27/fulltext.pdf

Very little information on systemic MB concentrations in humans was available at the onset of this investigation, and what was available suggested a very low bioavailability. Our own data on the interaction of MB and CQ from a previous study [26] did not allow us to estimate bioavailability. In a study comparing 100 mg MB orally and i.v., the AUC0–4h of whole blood MB concentrations was only about 1% of the corresponding value after i.v. injection [24]. Therefore, in the investigation reported here, the oral dose was relatively high, whereas the i.v. dose was less than that in the earlier bioavailability study [24] and less than used for some diagnostic procedures [15]. However, in contrast to our expectation, bioavailability turned out to be high: about two thirds of the oral dose of MB taken as an aqueous solution reached the systemic circulation. One important explanation for this finding is probably the fact that the sensitivity of analytical procedures has improved remarkably in the time between our study and previous ones [3]; this has enabled us to detect total MB concentrations in plasma and whole blood much better than previously, with a difference in the order of 100:1. In our interaction study with CQ [26], we probably quantified only the unbound fraction, and it is possible that other published reports also relate to free rather than to total MB plasma and whole blood concentrations.


From fig. 3 Maximal plasma concentration: 3300 ng/ml for 500 mg MB orally. So about 10000 nM for 500 mg and 2 nM for 100 µg if we ignore everything that probably can't be ignored when going to much smaller dosages. And if we then happily apply the multiply by 10 result from the other study. That would sort of give a brain concentration of 20 nM for 100 µg orally.


Thanks for the paper, DeadMeat. They see a lot higher blood concentration from the IV and the oral dose than the 2000 EJCP paper did! The 2000 paper had ~450nM at 1 hour from 100mg IV, and the 2009 paper saw ~1800nM from 50mg. Correcting for the different dose, that's an eight times higher blood level. I guess this is due to the improved methodology, but I think this throws the 'factor of ten' into dispute. In figure 3 of the 2000 paper, the factor only applies to the IV dose. The oral dose gave the same brain concentration as the 1 hour IV blood concentration, so it wasn't a factor of ten times the oral-dose blood concentration. One of the big take-home messages of that paper was that the oral route doesn't lead to as high a brain concentration as iv does, though it provides pretty good levels for some central compartments. However, that may be based on a completely bogus blood level, but the reason for the change in blood levels (presumably unaccounted-for protein binding) probably doesn't apply to the brain level, because the brain isn't full of serum albumin like blood is.

At any rate, this opens a whole new can of worms, because now I'm really not sure how to interpret the rat organ distribution data. One thing that still seems solid is that in the 2000 rat paper, using the same analytical method for the iv dose and the oral dose, the brain tissue had about 30X as much MB from the IV dose. The newer paper says blood levels are 8X higher than we thought, but doesn't have anything to say about brain levels. What I really don't know is how to relate the brain level to the new higher blood level. My suspicion is that the factor will go way down, but I don't know for sure.

Finally, there's the issue of comparing the pharmacokinetics of doses that differ by three orders of magnitude. If there are any processes that can get saturated, these might not be at all linearly related. For example, if there is a site in the gut that's able to bind a few mg of MB but then doesn't bind any more, that would change everything for the low dose. That's another question mark.

"More research is needed"...

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#360 DeadMeat

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Posted 04 December 2011 - 01:44 PM

Thanks for the paper, DeadMeat. They see a lot higher blood concentration from the IV and the oral dose than the 2000 EJCP paper did! The 2000 paper had ~450nM at 1 hour from 100mg IV, and the 2009 paper saw ~1800nM from 50mg. Correcting for the different dose, that's an eight times higher blood level. I guess this is due to the improved methodology, but I think this throws the 'factor of ten' into dispute. In figure 3 of the 2000 paper, the factor only applies to the IV dose. The oral dose gave the same brain concentration as the 1 hour IV blood concentration, so it wasn't a factor of ten times the oral-dose blood concentration.

But that iv blood concentration is 10 times the oral blood concentration. In fig. 3 of the 2000 study the oral blood level is at 0.1 of the iv blood level at one hour. So as chrono already mentioned the oral brain concentration is 10 times the oral blood concentration.

One of the big take-home messages of that paper was that the oral route doesn't lead to as high a brain concentration as iv does, though it provides pretty good levels for some central compartments. However, that may be based on a completely bogus blood level, but the reason for the change in blood levels (presumably unaccounted-for protein binding) probably doesn't apply to the brain level, because the brain isn't full of serum albumin like blood is.

At any rate, this opens a whole new can of worms, because now I'm really not sure how to interpret the rat organ distribution data. One thing that still seems solid is that in the 2000 rat paper, using the same analytical method for the iv dose and the oral dose, the brain tissue had about 30X as much MB from the IV dose. The newer paper says blood levels are 8X higher than we thought, but doesn't have anything to say about brain levels. What I really don't know is how to relate the brain level to the new higher blood level. My suspicion is that the factor will go way down, but I don't know for sure.

I have no idea whether methylene blue binds to stuff in the brain. So I assume the 2000 organ distribution data is just fully unusable for comparison with the 2009 study.

Finally, there's the issue of comparing the pharmacokinetics of doses that differ by three orders of magnitude. If there are any processes that can get saturated, these might not be at all linearly related. For example, if there is a site in the gut that's able to bind a few mg of MB but then doesn't bind any more, that would change everything for the low dose. That's another question mark.

"More research is needed"...


Definitely and it would also be nice to know what the effects of repeated dosaging would be on that saturation and the concentrations in the blood/brain/and the rest.




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